Lecturer Computer Science (BS-17)
(Male/Female) - 2017

1.    Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term scheduler?
a) dispatcher (answer)
b) interrupt
c) scheduler
d) none of the mentioned

2.    The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute are kept on a list called
a) job queue
b) ready queue (answer)
c) execution queue
d) process queue

3.    The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed as
a) waiting time
b) turnaround time (answer)
c) response time
d) throughput­­


4.    Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU first?
a) first-come, first-served scheduling (answer)
b) shortest job scheduling
c) priority scheduling
d) none of the mentioned

5.    In priority scheduling algorithm
a) CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority (answer)
b) CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority
c) Equal priority processes cannot be scheduled
d) None of the mentioned

6.    In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority is compared with the priority of
a) all process
b) currently running process (answer)
c) parent process
d) init process


7.    Time quantum is defined in
a) shortest job scheduling algorithm
b) round robin scheduling algorithm (answer)
c) priority scheduling algorithm
d) multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

8.    In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm
a) a process can move to a different classified ready queue (answer)
b) classification of ready queue is permanent
c) processes are not classified into groups
d) none of the mentioned


9.    Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?
a) kernel level thread
b) user level thread (answer)
c) process
d) none of the mentioned
Explanation: User level threads are managed by thread library and the kernel in unaware of them.

10.  A process refers to 5 pages, A, B, C, D, E in the order : A, B, C, D, A, B, E, A, B, C, D, E. If the page replacement algorithm is FIFO, the number of page transfers with an empty internal store of 3 frames is :
a) 8
b) 10
c) 9 (answer)
d) 7

11.  A memory page containing a heavily used variable that was initialized very early and is in constant use is removed, then the page replacement algorithm used is :
a) LRU
b) LFU
c) FIFO (answer)
d) None of the mentioned


12.  Users _______ that their processes are running on a paged system.
a) are aware
b) are unaware (answer)
c) informed
d) none of the mentioned

13.  The aim of creating page replacement algorithms is to :
a) replace pages faster
b) increase the page fault rate
c) decrease the page fault rate (answer)
d) to allocate multiple pages to processes


14.  A FIFO replacement algorithm associates with each page the _______
a) time it was brought into memory (answer)
b) size of the page in memory
c) page after and before it
d) all of the mentioned

15.  Optimal page – replacement algorithm is :
a) Replace the page that has not been used for a long time
b) Replace the page that has been used for a long time
c) Replace the page that will not be used for a long time (answer)
d) None of the mentioned


16.  Optimal page – replacement algorithm is difficult to implement, because :
a) it requires a lot of information
b) it requires future knowledge of the reference string (answer)
c) it is too complex
d) it is extremely expensive

17.  LRU page – replacement algorithm associates with each page the ______
a) time it was brought into memory
b) the time of that page’s last use (answer)
c) page after and before it
d) all of the mentioned


18.  For 3 page frames, the following is the reference string:
7 0 1 2 0 3 0 4 2 3 0 3 2 1 2 0 1 7 0 1
How many page faults does the LRU page replacement algorithm produce?
a) 10
b) 15
c) 11
d) 12 (answer)

19.  CPU fetches the instruction from memory according to the value of
a) program counter (answer)
b) status register
c) instruction register
d) program status word


20.  A memory buffer used to accommodate a speed differential is called
a) stack pointer
b) cache (answer)
c) accumulator
d) disk buffer

21.  Which one of the following is the address generated by CPU?
a) physical address
b) absolute address
c) logical address (answer)
d) none of the mentioned


22.  Run time mapping from virtual to physical address is done by
a) Memory management unit (answer)
b) CPU
c) PCI
d) None of the mentioned

23.  Memory management technique in which system stores and retrieves data from secondary storage for use in main memory is called
a) fragmentation
b) paging (answer)
c) mapping
d) none of the mentioned


24.  The interrupt-request line is a part of the
a) Data line
b) Control line (answer)
c) Address line
d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: The Interrupt-request line is a control line along which the device is allowed to send the interrupt signal.

25.  The return address from the interrupt-service routine is stored on the
a) System heap
b) Processor register
c) Processor stack (answer)
d) Memory
Explanation: The Processor after servicing the interrupts as to load the address of the previous process and this address is stored in the stack.

26.  The signal sent to the device from the processor to the device after receiving an interrupt is
a) Interrupt-acknowledge (answer)
b) Return signal
c) Service signal
d) Permission signal
Explanation: The Processor upon receiving the interrupt should let the device know that its request is received.

27.  A relational database consists of a collection of
a) Tables (answer)
b) Fields
c) Records
d) Keys
Explanation: Fields are the column of the relation or tables. Records are each row in relation. Keys are the constraints in a relation.

28.  A ________ in a table represents a relationship among a set of values.
a) Column
b) Key
c) Row (answer)
d) Entry

Explanation: Column has only one set of values. Keys are constraints and row is one whole set of attributes. Entry is just a piece of data.

29.   The term _______ is used to refer to a row.
a) Attribute
b) Tuple (answer)
c) Field
d) Instance
 Explanation: Tuple is one entry of the relation with several attributes which are fields.

30.  The term attribute refers to a ___________ of a table.
a) Record
b) Column (answer)
c) Tuple
d) Key

Explanation: Attribute is a specific domain in the relation which has entries of all tuples.
31.  For each attribute of a relation, there is a set of permitted values, called the ________ of that attribute.
a) Domain (answer)
b) Relation
c) Set
d) Schema

Explanation: The values of the attribute should be present in the domain. Domain is a set of values permitted.

32.  Which of the following is a tuple-generating dependencies?
a) Functional dependency
b) Equality-generating dependencies
c) Multivalued dependencies (answer)
d) Non-functional dependency

Explanation: Multivalued dependencies, do not rule out the existence of certain tuples. Instead, they require that other tuples of a certain form be present in the relation.

33.  The main task carried out in the __________ is to remove repeating attributes to separate tables.

a) First Normal Form (answer)
b) Second Normal Form
c) Third Normal Form
d) Fourth Normal Form

Explanation: Multivalued dependencies, do not rule out the existence of certain tuples. Instead, they require that other tuples of a certain form be present in the relation.

34.  Which of the normal form is based on multivalued dependencies?
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth (answer)

Explanation: Multivalued dependencies, do not rule out the existence of certain tuples. Instead, they require that other tuples of a certain form be present in the relation.

35.  Which forms has a relation that possesses data about an individual entity?
a) 2NF
b) 3NF
c) 4NF (answer)
d) 5NF

Explanation: A Table is in 4NF if and only if, for every one of its non-trivial multivalued dependencies X \two head right arrow Y, X is a super key—that is, X is either a candidate key or a superset there of.


36.  Which of the following has each related entity set has its own schema and there is an additional schema for the relationship set?
a) A many-to-many relationship set (answer)
b) A multivalued attribute of an entity set
c) A one-to-many relationship set
d) None of the mentioned

Explanation: If a multivalued dependency holds and is not implied by the corresponding functional dependency, it usually arises from this source.

37.  In which of the following, a separate schema is created consisting of that attribute and the primary key of the entity set.
a) A many-to-many relationship set
b) A multivalued attribute of an entity set (answer)
c) A one-to-many relationship set
d) None of the mentioned

Explanation: If a multivalued dependency holds and is not implied by the corresponding functional dependency, it usually arises from this source.


38.  In 2NF

A) No functional dependencies exist.
B) No multivalued dependencies exist.
C) No partial functional dependencies exist (answer)
D) No partial multivalued dependencies exist.

39.  _____________ can help us detect poor E-R design.

a) Database Design Process
b) E-R Design Process
c) Relational scheme
d) Functional dependencies (answer)

Explanation: For eg., Suppose an instructor entity set had attributes dept name and dept address, and there is a functional dependency dept name -> dept address.

40.  Build & Fix Model is suitable for programming exercises of ___________ LOC (Line of Code).

a) 100-200 (answer)
b) 200-400
c) 400-1000
d) above 1000

Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable for small projects & programming exercises of 100 or 200 lines.


41.  What is the best way to represent the attributes in a large database?
a) Relational-and
b) Concatenation (answer)
c) Dot representation
d) All of the mentioned

Explanation: Example inst sec and student sec.

42.  Designers use which of the following to tune the performance of systems to support time-critical operations?

a) Denormalization (answer)
b) Redundant optimization
c) Optimization
d) Realization

Explanation: The process of taking a normalized schema and making it nonnormalized is called denormalization.

43.  RAD stands for

a) Relative Application Development
b) Rapid Application Development (answer)
c) Rapid Application Document
d) None of the mentioned

44.  Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any change?

a) Build & Fix Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) Waterfall Model (answer)

Explanation: Real projects rarely follow the sequential flow that the Waterfall Model proposes.

45.  Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping Model?
a) Quick Design
b) Coding (answer)
c) Prototype Refinement
d) Engineer Product

Explanation: A prototyping model generates only a working model of a system.

46.  RAD Model has
a) 2 phases
b) 3 phase
c) 5 phases (answer)
d) 6 phases
Explanation: RAD Model consists of five phases namely: Business modeling, Data modeling, Process modeling, Application generation and Testing & Turnover.

47.  What is the major drawback of using RAD Model?
a) Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required
b) Increases reusability of components
c) Encourages customer/client feedback
d) Increases reusability of components, Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required (answer)

Explanation: The client may create an unrealistic product vision leading a team to over or under-develop functionality. Also, the specialized & skilled developers are not easily available.

48.  SDLC stands for
a) Software Development Life Cycle (answer)
b) System Development Life cycle
c) Software Design Life Cycle
d) System Design Life Cycle

49.  Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC?
a) Waterfall Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model (answer)
d) both Prototyping Model & RAD Model

50.  Two devices are in network if
a) a process in one device is able to exchange information with a process in another device (answer)
b) a process is running on both devices
c) PIDs of the processes running of different devices are same
d) none of the mentioned

51.  In computer network nodes are
a) the computer that originates the data
b) the computer that routes the data
c) the computer that terminates the data
d) all of the mentioned (answer)

52.  Communication channel is shared by all the machines on the network in
a) broadcast network (answer)
b) unicast network
c) multicast network
d) none of the mentioned

53.  Bluetooth is an example of
a) personal area network (answer)
b) local area network
c) virtual private network
d) none of the mentioned

54.  A __________ is a device that forwards packets between networks by processing the routing information included in the packet.
a) bridge
b) firewall
c) router (answer)
d) all of the mentioned

55.  A list of protocols used by a system, one protocol per layer, is called
a) protocol architecture
b) protocol stack (answer)
c) protocol suit
d) none of the mentioned

56.  Network congestion occurs
a) in case of traffic overloading (answer)
b) when a system terminates
c) when connection between two nodes terminates
d) none of the mentioned

57.  Which one of the following extends a private network across public networks?
a) local area network
b) virtual private network (answer)
c) enterprise private network
d) storage area network

58.  The network layer concerns with
a) bits
b) frames
c) packets (answer)
d) none of the mentioned

59.  Which one of the following is not a function of network layer?
a) routing
b) inter-networking
c) congestion control
d) none of the mentioned (answer)

60.  The 4 byte IP address consists of
a) network address
b) host address
c) both network address & host address (answer)
d) none of the mentioned


61.  In virtual circuit network each packet contains
a) full source and destination address
b) a short VC number (answer)
c) only source address
d) only destination address

62.  Which one of the following routing algorithm can be used for network layer design?
a) shortest path algorithm
b) distance vector routing
c) link state routing
d) all of the mentioned (answer)

63.  The network layer protocol of internet is
a) ethernet
b) internet protocol (answer)
c) hypertext transfer protocol
d) none of the mentioned

64.  ICMP is primarily used for
a) error and diagnostic functions (answer)
b) addressing
c) forwarding
d) none of the mentioned

65.  The lexical analyzer takes_________as input and produces a stream of_______as output.
a) Source program, tokens (answer)
b) Token, source program
c) Either of the two
d) None of the mentioned

Explanation: As per the definition of Lexical Analyser which states that lexical analysis is the process of converting a sequence of characters into tokens.

66.  Parsing is also known as
a) Lexical Analysis
b) Syntax Analysis (answer)
c) Semantic Analysis
d) Code Generation

Explanation: Parsing or syntactic analysis is the process of analysing a string of symbols and conforming to the rules of grammar.

67.  A compiler program written in a high level language is called

a) Source Program (answer)
b) Object Program
c) Machine Language Program
d) None of the mentioned

Explanation: The input that we give in high level language is also known as the source language.

68.  The number of pixels stored in the frame buffer of a graphics system is known as
a) Resolution
b) Depth
c) Resalution
d) Only a (answer)
Explanation: Number of pixels determines the resolution.
69.  In graphical system, the array of pixels in the picture are stored in
a) Memory (answer)
b) Frame buffer
c) Processor
d) All of the mentioned

Explanation: Frame buffer is mainly used to store pixels.

70.  Which of the following is key characteristic of hacker?
a) Afraid to say they don’t know the answer
b) Willing to find answers on their own (answer)
c) Not Willing to find answers on their own
d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: Hacker is an expert at programming and solving problems with a computer.

71.  Which of the following focuses on the discovery of (previously) unknown properties on the data ?
a) Data mining (answer)
b) Big Data
c) Data wrangling
d) Machine Learning

Explanation: Data munging or data wrangling is loosely the process of manually converting or mapping data from one “raw” form into another format that allows for more convenient consumption of the data with the help of semi-automated tools.

72.  Which process model should be used in virtually all situations of web engineering?
a) Incremental Model (answer)
b) Waterfall Model
c) Spiral Model
d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: The web engineering process must accommodate incremental delivery, frequent changes and short timeline.

73.  Which analysis is a part of Analysis model of the web engineering process framework?
a) Content Analysis
b) Interaction Analysis
c) Functional Analysis
d) All of the mentioned (answer)

Explanation: Analysis model establishes a basis for design which requires all the mentioned options.



74.  Which of the following statements are incorrect with reference to web-based systems? Web-based systems
a) should be un-scalable (answer)
b) must be able to cope with uncertain, random heavy demands on services
c) must be secure
d) are subject to assorted legal, social, and ethical scrutiny

Explanation: Web-based systems should be scalable.


75.  What category of web-based system would you assign to electronic shopping?
a) Informational
b) Interactive
c) Transaction-oriented (answer)
d) Workflow-oriented

Explanation: It involves usage of transaction management of database systems.



76.  What category of web-based system would you assign to discussion groups?
a) Collaborative work
b) Online communities (answer)
c) Web portals
d) Workflow-oriented



77.   W3C stands for
a) World Wide Web Consortium (answer)
b) World Wide Web Collaboration
c) World Wide Web Community
d) None of the mentioned

Explanation: W3C is an international consortium where member organizations, a full-time staff, and the public work together to develop web standards.



78.  Which of the following is a risk associated with using hypertext in web applications?
a) Loss of sense of locality and direction
b) Cognitive overload for users
c) All of the mentioned (answer)
d) None of the mentioned

Explanation: Hypertexts and links may divert the users attention from the main content.



79.  Which of the following is not a NoSQL database?
a) SQL Server (answer)
b) MongoDB
c) Cassandra
d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: Microsoft SQL Server is a relational database management system developed by Microsoft.



80.   Which of the following is a NoSQL Database Type?
a) SQL
b) Document databases (answer)
c) JSON
d) All of the mentioned

Explanation: Document databases pair each key with a complex data structure known as a document.